I really need a straight answer to this please, if possible.

I'm struggling - still - with my husbands history of using prostitutes and he's just admitted that he behaved like a teenager on heat when he had the affair. When I ask him about it he blames it all on the abuse, that he felt 'compelled' to do these things.

What I need to know is - did he have no responsibility for these things himself? Is the abuse an excuse or could he have stopped at some point?

Thankyou in advance,

Jemma